/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
Modern English translations of Plato's accounts of Atlantis in the Timaeus and Critias, regularly state "9,000 years" as the date before Plato's time of writing. How has this date been calibrated from Plato's ancient Greek into the standard modern English translation as "9,000 years"?
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How would European royalty have addressed one another when speaking in a language whose second-person pronouns had varying degrees of formality and plurality?
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Was Alexander aware of the growing power of Rome? If they were to meet would Alexander have squashed Rome before it became an empire?
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Did Gregor Strasser oppose Hitler's relationships with industry like IG Farben, Krupp, and Daimler-Benz?
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When did the Western European powers realize that their time as the most powerful countries in the world had ended and that they were going to be overtaken by the USA, USSR, etc.
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Regarding a recent legislative proposal in the US Senate that would entail a 60-day congressional review period of any US-Iranian agreements, is there any precedent for similar Congressional involvement in foreign agreements?
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